Free Nbde Practice Test (2025) Questions

Question: Which of the following is the most common causative agent of dental caries?

Answer: Streptococcus mutans

Question: What is the mechanism by which penicillin operates?

Answer: Inhibits cell wall synthesis

Question: Which of the following viruses is responsible for the majority of cases of viral hepatitis?

Answer: Hepatitis B virus (HBV)

Question: Oral candidiasis is caused by which of the following organisms?

Answer: Candida albicans

Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)?

Answer: Presence of Fusobacterium and Spirochaetes

Question: What is the most likely pathogen in a patient with a rapidly progressing periodontal disease?

Answer: All of the above

Question: Tuberculosis is primarily caused by which organism?

Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

Question: Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in the pathogenesis of rheumatic fever?

Answer: Type III (Immune complex-mediated)

Question: Which of the following pathogens is most closely associated with the development of periodontal disease?

Answer: Porphyromonas gingivalis

Question: Acute osteomyelitis of the jaw most commonly results from an infection with which organism?

Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

Question: Which bacterial structure is the primary target of penicillin?

Answer: Cell wall

Question: What is the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults?

Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses?

Answer: Contain both DNA and RNA

Question: Which of the following is a gram-positive bacterium?

Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

Question: What is the primary mode of action for the antifungal drug amphotericin B?

Answer: Disruption of fungal cell membrane

Question: Candida albicans is most commonly associated with which of the following infections?

Answer: Oral and genital infections

Question: Which of the following pathogens is a primary cause of periodontal disease?

Answer: Porphyromonas gingivalis

Question: What type of immunity is most effective in defending against virus-infected cells?

Answer: Cell-mediated immunity

Question: Which of the following is NOT a typical characteristic of autoimmune diseases?

Answer: Suppression of the immune system

Question: Which of the following microorganisms is the most common cause of dental caries?

Answer: Streptococcus mutans

Question: Which type of hepatitis is most likely to be transmitted through contaminated food?

Answer: Hepatitis A

Question: What is the mechanism of action of tetracycline antibiotics?

Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis

Question: Which of the following pathogens is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?

Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

Question: Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG) is primarily associated with which bacteria?

Answer: Treponema denticola

Question: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of neoplasia?

Answer: Controlled growth

Question: Candidiasis is caused by a:

Answer: Fungus

Question: Which of the following viral infections is known to cause oral hairy leukoplakia?

Answer: Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Question: Regarding the pathogenesis of periodontal disease, which factor is considered a major constituent of dental plaque that contributes to periodontal tissue destruction?

Answer: Endotoxins

Question: Lymphadenopathy in the context of an oral infection usually indicates:

Answer: Localized reaction to microbial invasion

Question: Which of the following bacteria is most likely to be responsible for dental caries?

Answer: Streptococcus mutans

Question: What type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in the pathogenesis of rheumatic fever following a Streptococcus pyogenes throat infection?

Answer: Type II

Question: Which of the following is the most common cause of osteomyelitis?

Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

Question: For which of the following conditions is the presence of Howell-Jolly bodies on a blood smear indicative?

Answer: Sickle cell anemia

Question: What is the mechanism of action for penicillin antibiotics?

Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Question: Which of the following organisms is a common cause of pneumonia in patients with cystic fibrosis?

Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

Question: Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis prior to dental procedures in penicillin-allergic individuals?

Answer: Clindamycin

Question: What is the main carcinogenic mechanism of Epstein-Barr virus?

Answer: Insertion of viral oncogenes into the host DNA

Question: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?

Answer: Gray pseudomembrane over the gingiva

Question: Which herpes simplex virus type is primarily associated with herpetic gingivostomatitis?

Answer: HSV-1

Question: Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of Gram-positive bacteria?

Answer: Presence of a thick peptidoglycan layer

Question: What is the role of superantigens in pathogenesis?

Answer: They induce an intense immune response

Question: Which of the following is NOT associated with bacterial resistance to antibiotics?

Answer: Increasing the dose of antibiotic used

Question: A patient presents with a sore throat and a 'strawberry tongue', which organism is most likely responsible?

Answer: Streptococcus pyogenes

Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of necrosis?

Answer: Affected cells swell and burst

Question: Which of the following best describes Type IV hypersensitivity?

Answer: Cell-mediated hypersensitivity

Question: Kaposi's sarcoma is strongly associated with infection by which organism?

Answer: Human Herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8)

Question: In the context of microbial pathogenicity, what is the function of adhesins?

Answer: They facilitate the attachment of pathogens to host cells

Question: Candidiasis is most commonly caused by which species?

Answer: Candida albicans

Question: What mechanism does Mycobacterium tuberculosis use to evade the host's immune response?

Answer: It survives inside host macrophages

Question: Which of the following bacteria is most likely to be found in a dental abscess?

Answer: Prevotella intermedia

Question: What is the role of superantigens in the pathogenesis of disease?

Answer: They stimulate a strong immune response by binding to the MHC II and T-cell receptor.

Question: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of necrosis?

Answer: Rupture of the cell membrane

Question: A patient with a periodontal disease is most likely to show increased levels of which microorganism?

Answer: Porphyromonas gingivalis

Question: Which of the following cytokines is primarily involved in the fever response?

Answer: Interleukin-6 (IL-6)

Question: In the development of dental caries, which factor is considered primarily responsible for the demineralization of enamel?

Answer: Acid production by bacterial fermentation of dietary carbohydrates

Question: Which of the following is an important virulence factor for Streptococcus mutans in the development of dental caries?

Answer: Its ability to produce lactic acid

Question: Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in the pathogenesis of contact dermatitis?

Answer: Type IV

Question: What is the most common cause of osteomyelitis following a fractured bone?

Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

Question: The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is a diagnostic marker for which of the following diseases?

Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

Question: Which bacterium is primarily responsible for dental caries?

Answer: Streptococcus mutans

Question: What is the structure that allows bacteria to adhere to surfaces and form biofilms?

Answer: Fimbriae

Question: Which of the following pathogens is the most common cause of periodontal disease?

Answer: Porphyromonas gingivalis

Question: What type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in the pathogenesis of aphthous ulcers?

Answer: Type IV (delayed-type hypersensitivity)

Question: Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of action by which antibiotics kill bacteria?

Answer: Activation of bacteriophage replication

Question: What is the causative agent of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (ANUG)?

Answer: Fusobacterium species

Question: Which viral infection is associated with Burkitt's lymphoma?

Answer: Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)

Question: Which cytokine is most important in the formation of osteoclasts and bone resorption in periodontal disease?

Answer: Interleukin-1 (IL-1)

Question: The presence of what substance differentiates impetigo caused by Streptococcus pyogenes and Staphylococcus aureus?

Answer: Coagulase

Question: Which organism causes Vincent's angina, also known as acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis?

Answer: Fusobacterium nucleatum

Question: What type of bacteria are primarily involved in dental caries?

Answer: S. mutans and Lactobacilli

Question: Which of the following is a hallmark sign of inflammation?

Answer: Rubor (redness)

Question: A patient presents with painful swollen lymph nodes, fever, and a spreading ulcerative lesion at the site of a recent tooth extraction. What is the most likely cause?

Answer: Actinomycosis

Question: Which of the following best describes the term 'opportunistic infection'?

Answer: An infection by a microorganism that normally does not cause disease in healthy individuals, but can in immunocompromised individuals

Question: The presence of what substance is most indicative of an active infection by Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

Answer: Cord factor

Question: Which of the following pathogens is most commonly associated with acute osteomyelitis of the jaw?

Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

Question: Koplik spots are a diagnostic feature of which of the following diseases?

Answer: Measles (Rubeola)

Question: Which of the following best defines a granulomatous inflammation?

Answer: A type of chronic inflammation characterized by the formation of granulomas

Question: What mechanism do antifungal drugs primarily utilize to kill or inhibit fungal pathogens?

Answer: Inhibition of ergosterol synthesis in the fungal cell membrane

Question: Which of the following organisms is a common cause of acute bacterial endocarditis following dental procedures?

Answer: Streptococcus sanguinis

Question: Chronic granulomatous disease occurs due to a defect in which of the following?

Answer: Oxidative burst in phagocytes

Question: Which of the following is a characteristic feature of apoptosis?

Answer: Cell membrane blebbing

Question: The presence of Reed-Sternberg cells is a definitive diagnostic feature of which of the following diseases?

Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

Question: Which of the following mechanisms of action is primarily associated with penicillin antibiotics?

Answer: Inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Question: What is the primary virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes responsible for scarlet fever?

Answer: Erythrogenic toxin

Question: In the context of microbial pathogenesis, quorum sensing is critical for which of the following?

Answer: Regulating gene expression in response to cell density

Question: Cytokine storm syndrome, often associated with severe infections, is primarily characterized by:

Answer: Massive release of proinflammatory cytokines

Question: Which fungal pathogen is most commonly associated with bird droppings and can cause severe respiratory infections?

Answer: Histoplasma capsulatum

Question: Which organism is most closely associated with dental caries?

Answer: Streptococcus mutans

Question: What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis

Question: Which of the following is a characteristic of necrosis?

Answer: Cell swelling and rupture

Question: Which hepatitis virus is most commonly transmitted through fecal-oral route?

Answer: Hepatitis A

Question: What type of hypersensitivity reaction is responsible for allergic contact dermatitis?

Answer: Type IV

Question: Which organism causes thrush?

Answer: Candida albicans

Question: Which is the main cellular target for the cytotoxic effects of ionizing radiation?

Answer: Cell nucleus

Question: What is the hallmark of chronic inflammation?

Answer: Granuloma formation

Question: What type of bacteria are primarily involved in the initial stages of dental plaque formation?

Answer: Gram-positive cocci

Question: What is the most common cause of infective endocarditis following dental procedures?

Answer: Streptococcus sanguinis

Question: Which of the following organisms is most likely to be responsible for dental caries?

Answer: Streptococcus mutans

Question: A patient presents with a painful, swollen jaw and a fever. Radiographs reveal a radiolucent area at the apex of an abscessed tooth. Which type of bacteria are most likely involved?

Answer: Viridans streptococci

Question: Actinomyces israelii is primarily associated with which of the following conditions?

Answer: Actinomycosis

Question: Which of the following is the most common pathogen found in periodontal disease?

Answer: Porphyromonas gingivalis

Question: Regarding tuberculosis, which of the following statements is true?

Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is the causative agent.

Question: Candida albicans is most commonly associated with which of the following conditions?

Answer: Oral thrush

Question: Which of the following conditions is NOT caused by a bacteria?

Answer: Hepatitis

Question: The primary mode of transmission for Hepatitis B in the dental office is through:

Answer: Contact with blood

Question: Which antibiotic class is primarily effective against Gram-positive bacteria?

Answer: Penicillins

Question: Which of the following microorganisms is an obligate intracellular parasite?

Answer: Rickettsia rickettsii

Question: What is the mechanism of action for tetracyclines?

Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit

Question: Which term describes the spread of cancer from one organ to another non-adjacent organ?

Answer: Metastasis

Question: What type of hypersensitivity reaction is a Transfusion reaction?

Answer: Type II

Question: Which of the following pathogens is the most common cause of bacterial pneumonia?

Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

Question: What is the primary virulence factor of Streptococcus mutans in the development of dental caries?

Answer: Formation of biofilm

Question: Granulomatous inflammation is characterized by the accumulation of which type of cells?

Answer: Macrophages

Question: Which hepatitis virus is known for its high risk of chronic infection leading to liver cirrhosis and liver cancer?

Answer: Hepatitis C virus

Question: What is the main cause of peptic ulcers?

Answer: Helicobacter pylori infection

Question: Which type of necrosis is typically associated with tuberculosis?

Answer: Caseous necrosis

Question: Which of the following microorganisms is a common cause of dental caries?

Answer: Streptococcus mutans

Question: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of necrosis?

Answer: Chromatin condensation

Question: What type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in allergic contact dermatitis?

Answer: Type IV

Question: Which bacterium is most commonly associated with aggressive periodontitis?

Answer: Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans

Question: Candida albicans, a common oral fungus, can cause which of the following conditions?

Answer: Oral candidiasis

Question: In which of the following conditions is the bacterium Porphyromonas gingivalis a key pathogenic agent?

Answer: Chronic periodontitis

Question: Which type of bacteria are primarily responsible for the production of lactic acid from the fermentation of dietary carbohydrates, thus contributing to dental caries?

Answer: Gram-positive cocci

Question: Which one of the following pathogens is a common cause of acute dentoalveolar abscess?

Answer: Porphyromonas gingivalis

Question: Autoclaving sterilizes materials by using:

Answer: Steam under pressure

Question: Which bacterium is most commonly associated with dental caries?

Answer: Streptococcus mutans

Question: What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis

Question: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of necrosis?

Answer: Energy-dependent

Question: The presence of which antibody class is typically used to confirm a recent infection?

Answer: IgM

Question: Candida albicans is a common causative agent of which of the following?

Answer: Oral thrush

Question: Which of the following is a hallmark of acute inflammation?

Answer: Edema

Question: Mycobacterium tuberculosis primarily affects which organ?

Answer: Lung

Question: Hepatitis B virus transmission is most likely to occur through which of the following?

Answer: Blood and body fluids

Question: Which of the following is true regarding anaerobic bacteria?

Answer: They cause infections that are typically odorous.

Question: Which of the following bacteria is most commonly associated with dental caries?

Answer: Streptococcus mutans

Question: What is the mechanism of action of tetracycline antibiotics?

Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis

Question: Which of the following pathogens is the most common cause of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)?

Answer: Porphyromonas gingivalis

Question: Candida albicans infections in the oral cavity are most likely to occur in individuals:

Answer: Undergoing antibiotic therapy

Question: The presence of Koplik spots is most closely associated with which of the following diseases?

Answer: Rubeola (Measles)

Question: The leading causative agent of periodontal disease is:

Answer: Porphyromonas gingivalis

Question: Which of the following is not a hallmark sign of inflammation?

Answer: Hypoxia (lack of oxygen)

Question: A 'bull’s eye' rash is characteristic of which disease?

Answer: Lyme disease

Question: Which of the following bacteria is most commonly associated with dental caries?

Answer: Streptococcus mutans

Question: Which of the following organisms is a common cause of necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis (NUG)?

Answer: Fusobacterium nucleatum

Question: What is the mechanism of action of tetracyclines?

Answer: Inhibition of protein synthesis

Question: What type of hypersensitivity reaction is involved in acute poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis?

Answer: Type III

Question: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of malignant tumors?

Answer: Encapsulated

Question: An anaerobic gram-negative rod involved in periodontal disease is:

Answer: Porphyromonas gingivalis

Question: Which of the following is the principle mode of transmission for Hepatitis B virus in the healthcare setting?

Answer: Bloodborne transmission

Question: What cellular change is commonly seen in leukoplakia?

Answer: Keratosis

Question: Which of the following cytokines is primarily involved in the fever response?

Answer: Interleukin-1 (IL-1)

Question: Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for elevating the rib cage during inspiration?

Answer: External intercostals

Question: What cranial nerve innervates the muscles of mastication?

Answer: Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

Question: The primary blood supply to the head of the femur is through the:

Answer: Medial circumflex femoral artery

Question: Which structure passes through the carpal tunnel?

Answer: Median nerve

Question: What part of the brain is primarily responsible for coordinating voluntary movements?

Answer: Cerebellum

Question: Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?

Answer: Sternum

Question: The Haversian system is associated with which type of human tissue?

Answer: Bone tissue

Question: What is the smallest structural and functional unit of the nervous system?

Answer: Neuron

Question: Which of the following vessels supplies oxygenated blood to the liver?

Answer: Hepatic artery

Question: Which of the following nerves is responsible for sensation to the lower teeth?

Answer: Inferior alveolar nerve

Question: What is the insertion point of the Masseter muscle?

Answer: Coronoid process of the mandible

Question: The primary center of ossification in long bones is known as the:

Answer: Diaphysis

Question: Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT directly involved in eye movement?

Answer: Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

Question: The heart valve located between the left atrium and left ventricle is the:

Answer: Mitral valve

Question: Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by which of the following structures?

Answer: Choroid plexus

Question: The Haversian system is a feature of which type of tissue?

Answer: Bone tissue

Question: In which region would you find the hyoid bone?

Answer: Cervical region

Question: Which of the following bones forms the posterior part of the hard palate?

Answer: Palatine

Question: The carotid sheath contains all of the following structures except:

Answer: External carotid artery

Question: Which cranial nerve is responsible for innervating the muscles of mastication?

Answer: Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

Question: Which of the following muscles is NOT considered a muscle of facial expression?

Answer: Masseter

Question: The lingual artery is a branch of which of the following?

Answer: External carotid artery

Question: Which of the following nerves does NOT innervate the tongue?

Answer: Phrenic nerve

Question: What structure directly articulates with the glenoid fossa of the temporal bone?

Answer: Mandibular condyle

Question: The primary center of ossification for long bones is located in the:

Answer: Diaphysis

Question: Which of the following structures passes through the foramen ovale?

Answer: Mandibular nerve (V3)

Question: Which of the following muscles elevates the ribcage during inspiration?

Answer: External intercostal

Question: Which cranial nerve is responsible for innervating the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles?

Answer: Cranial nerve XI (Accessory)

Question: What is the primary arterial supply to the mandible?

Answer: Inferior alveolar artery

Question: Which of the following passes through the foramen ovale?

Answer: Mandibular nerve

Question: What type of joint is the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

Answer: Saddle

Question: The lingual nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve?

Answer: Cranial nerve V3 (Mandibular)

Question: What structure does the sphenopalatine artery supply?

Answer: The nasal septum

Question: Which of the following is not a branch of the external carotid artery?

Answer: Vertebral artery

Question: The inferior orbital fissure lies between the:

Answer: Sphenoid and the maxilla

Question: Where is the pterygopalatine ganglion located?

Answer: Within the pterygopalatine fossa

Question: What is the primary cartilage type found in the growth plate?

Answer: Hyaline cartilage

Question: Which cranial nerve is responsible for innervating the muscles of mastication?

Answer: Cranial nerve V

Question: What is the anatomical structure that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity?

Answer: Diaphragm

Question: Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the maxillary teeth?

Answer: Superior alveolar artery

Question: What type of epithelial tissue lines the oral cavity?

Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium

Question: The lingual nerve is a branch of which of the following?

Answer: Mandibular division of Cranial nerve V

Question: Which of the following muscles is primarily responsible for elevating the ribs during inspiration?

Answer: External intercostals

Question: In the kidney, where does filtration occur?

Answer: Glomerulus

Question: Which part of the tooth is responsible for the sensation of pain?

Answer: Pulp

Question: Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

Answer: Cranial Nerve VII

Question: The primary cortical area responsible for processing auditory information is located in which lobe of the brain?

Answer: Temporal lobe

Question: Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in mastication?

Answer: Sternocleidomastoid

Question: What is the blood supply to the maxillary teeth?

Answer: Superior alveolar artery

Question: What structure marks the boundary between the superior and middle nasal meatus?

Answer: Middle nasal concha

Question: Which gland is responsible for the production of saliva that is rich in amylase?

Answer: Submandibular gland

Question: The Circle of Willis is primarily involved in providing an arterial supply to which area of the body?

Answer: The brain

Question: Which of the following structures does NOT pass through the superior orbital fissure?

Answer: Optic nerve

Question: Which of the following muscles is responsible for elevating the mandible?

Answer: Masseter

Question: The primary center of ossification for long bones is located in the:

Answer: Diaphysis

Question: Which of the following cranial nerves is not directly involved in eye movement?

Answer: Trigeminal nerve (CN V)

Question: What is the cell type found in the parathyroid gland that is responsible for detecting blood calcium levels?

Answer: Chief cells

Question: Which of the following structures conducts sperm from the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct?

Answer: Vas deferens

Question: The middle nasal concha is a part of which bone?

Answer: Ethmoid

Question: Blood from the brain is drained into the internal jugular vein via the:

Answer: Sigmoid sinus

Question: Which of the following arteries supplies blood to the maxillary and mandibular teeth?

Answer: Maxillary artery

Question: The primary lymphoid organ responsible for the maturation of T lymphocytes is the:

Answer: Thymus

Question: Which of the following bones forms the posterior part of the hard palate?

Answer: Palatine

Question: Which cranial nerve is responsible for sensation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?

Answer: Trigeminal nerve (V)

Question: What is the primary muscle responsible for elevating the mandible?

Answer: Masseter

Question: Which salivary gland is primarily responsible for producing mucous saliva?

Answer: Sublingual gland

Question: The optic canal is found in which bone?

Answer: Sphenoid

Question: Which of the following is not a branch of the facial artery?

Answer: Lingual artery

Question: Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for coordinating voluntary movements?

Answer: Cerebellum

Question: What is the function of the lateral pterygoid muscle?

Answer: Protracts the mandible

Question: Which of the following muscles is NOT considered a muscle of mastication?

Answer: Mylohyoid

Question: The primary center of ossification for long bones is located in the:

Answer: Diaphysis

Question: Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

Answer: Facial nerve (VII)

Question: The nutrient foramen of long bones transmits which of the following?

Answer: Arteries

Question: In tooth development, the hard tissue that forms first is:

Answer: Dentin

Question: Which artery supplies the maxillary teeth?

Answer: Superior alveolar artery

Question: The temporomandibular joint is an example of a:

Answer: Saddle joint

Question: The optic nerve is considered to be which cranial nerve?

Answer: II

Question: What is the function of the periodontal ligament?

Answer: All of the above

Question: Which of the following nerves is purely sensory in function?

Answer: Trigeminal nerve (V)

Question: The primary center of ossification in long bones is located in the:

Answer: Diaphysis

Question: Which of the following muscles is responsible for depression of the mandible?

Answer: Lateral pterygoid

Question: In the TMJ, the articular disc is composed of:

Answer: Fibrocartilage

Question: Which artery is the first major branch of the aortic arch?

Answer: Brachiocephalic trunk

Question: The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of which of the following?

Answer: Mandibular division of Trigeminal nerve

Question: Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?

Answer: Facial nerve (VII)

Question: What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?

Answer: Removing excess fluid from tissues

Question: Which of the following structures does not directly participate in the formation of the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

Answer: Coronoid process of the mandible

Question: Which of the following bones form the orbit?

Answer: Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, lacrimal, maxillary, zygomatic, and palatine bones

Question: Which of the following cranial nerves is not directly involved in eye movement?

Answer: Optic nerve (II)

Question: What type of joint is the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?

Answer: Saddle joint

Question: Which of the following structures is located in the posterior cranial fossa?

Answer: Cerebellum

Question: The wing of the nose is formed by which of the following cartilages?

Answer: Alar cartilage

Question: Which cranial nerve carries taste sensations from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

Answer: Facial nerve (VII)

Question: The Adam's apple corresponds to which of the following structures?

Answer: Thyroid cartilage

Question: Which gland is responsible for regulating metabolism through the secretion of thyroxine?

Answer: Thyroid gland

Question: The descending colon is part of which of the following systems?

Answer: Digestive system

Question: Which of the following muscles is responsible for elevating the mandible?

Answer: Masseter

Question: In which of the following bone is the mental foramen located?

Answer: Mandible

Question: Which of the following cranial nerves is primarily responsible for motor innervation to the muscles of mastication?

Answer: Trigeminal (V)

Question: What type of cartilage comprises the articular surfaces of the temporomandibular joint?

Answer: Fibrocartilage

Question: Which of the following nerves does NOT innervate the tongue?

Answer: Vagus nerve

Question: The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of which of the following nerves?

Answer: Mandibular nerve

Question: Which cranial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?

Answer: Facial (VII)

Question: The optic canal is located in which bone?

Answer: Sphenoid

Question: Which muscle is primarily responsible for elevating the upper lip and flaring the nostrils?

Answer: Levator labii superioris alaeque nasi

Question: The primary blood supply to the maxillary teeth is provided by which of the following arteries?

Answer: Superior alveolar artery

Question: What is the insertion point of the temporalis muscle?

Answer: Coronoid process of the mandible

Question: Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sense of taste in the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

Answer: Facial nerve (VII)

Question: Where is the sella turcica located?

Answer: Sphenoid bone

Question: Which ligament limits the movement of the mandible from excessive retraction?

Answer: Temporomandibular ligament

Question: Which of the following salivary glands produces a secretion that is primarily serous?

Answer: Parotid gland

Question: What structure does the inferior alveolar nerve travel through to enter the mandible?

Answer: Mandibular foramen

Question: Which of the following structures is located immediately posterior to the most distal molar in the upper jaw?

Answer: Tuberosity of the maxilla

Question: The epithelium of the oral mucosa is mostly composed of which type of cells?

Answer: Stratified squamous epithelium

Question: The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of which cranial nerve?

Answer: Trigeminal nerve (V)

Question: Which gland is NOT considered a major salivary gland?

Answer: Buccal gland

Question: Which of the following muscles is responsible for protruding the mandible?

Answer: Lateral pterygoid

Question: Which of the following is the primary artery supplying the maxillary anterior teeth?

Answer: Anterior superior alveolar artery

Question: Which nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression?

Answer: Facial nerve (VII)

Question: Blood supply to the pulpal tissue of the lower teeth is primarily provided by the:

Answer: Inferior alveolar artery

Question: The human permanent dentition consists of how many teeth?

Answer: 32

Question: Which of the following bones forms the primary posterior support for the nasal septum?

Answer: Vomer

Question: The inferior alveolar nerve is a branch of which of the following?

Answer: Mandibular nerve (V3)

Question: During swallowing, the elevation of the larynx and folding of the epiglottis primarily prevent food from entering the:

Answer: Trachea

Question: The maxillary artery is a direct branch of which of the following?

Answer: External carotid artery

Question: What is the primary muscle involved in the opening (depression) of the mandible?

Answer: Lateral pterygoid

Question: Which of the following cranial nerves is responsible for taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

Answer: Facial nerve (VII)

Question: Which of the following is the arterial supply to the parotid gland?

Answer: External carotid artery

Question: The lingual nerve provides sensory innervation to which of the following?

Answer: Tongue

Question: In which bone is the infraorbital foramen located?

Answer: Maxilla

Question: Which of the following structures is directly anterior to the esophagus?

Answer: Trachea

Question: Which cranial nerve is responsible for taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue?

Answer: Facial nerve

Question: The primary center of ossification in long bones is located in the:

Answer: Diaphysis

Question: Which muscle is directly involved in the elevation of the rib cage during inspiration?

Answer: External intercostal

Question: The maxillary artery is a branch of which major artery?

Answer: External carotid artery

Question: Which structure forms the primary cartilaginous joint of the mandible?

Answer: Condylar process

Question: What is the main function of the temporomandibular joint?

Answer: To assist in mastication and speech

Question: The middle meningeal artery is usually a branch of which artery?

Answer: Maxillary artery

Question: Which of the following glands is responsible for the regulation of calcium levels in the blood?

Answer: Parathyroid gland

Question: Which of the following cranial nerves is NOT directly involved in eye movement?

Answer: Trigeminal nerve (V)

Question: The primary center for coordination of eye movements and balance is the:

Answer: Cerebellum

Question: Which of the following structures is NOT part of the axial skeleton?

Answer: Femur

Question: What type of tissue composes the outer layer of the skin?

Answer: Epithelial tissue

Question: During inhalation, which of the following muscles contracts to expand the thoracic cavity?

Answer: Diaphragm

Question: Which part of the tooth is primarily composed of enamel?

Answer: Crown

Question: The ulnar nerve is an extension of which of the following?

Answer: Brachial plexus

Question: The process by which blood cells are formed is known as:

Answer: Hematopoiesis

Question: Which gland is responsible for regulating metabolism?

Answer: Thyroid gland

Question: Which of the following enzymes is directly involved in the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?

Answer: Hexokinase

Question: During muscle activity, the oxygen debt created is due to accumulation of which substance?

Answer: Lactic acid

Question: Which of the following processes describes the synthesis of glycogen from glucose?

Answer: Glycogenesis

Question: The majority of carbon dioxide is transported in the blood as:

Answer: Bicarbonate

Question: Which of the following molecules acts as a second messenger in many hormone action mechanisms?

Answer: Cyclic AMP

Question: What is the primary function of the enzyme aldolase in glycolysis?

Answer: Conversion of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate to two three-carbon molecules

Question: Which vitamin is necessary for the synthesis of the coenzyme NAD+?

Answer: Vitamin B3

Question: In the context of renal physiology, where does the majority of sodium reabsorption occur?

Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

Question: Which of the following processes occurs when blood calcium levels are low?

Answer: Both A and B

Question: Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of cholesterol?

Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

Question: In which part of the cell does glycolysis take place?

Answer: Cytosol

Question: Which hormone promotes the formation of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources?

Answer: Glucagon

Question: What is the primary function of the sodium-potassium pump?

Answer: Transport Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell

Question: Acetyl-CoA enters the citric acid cycle by reacting with which of the following compounds?

Answer: Oxaloacetate

Question: Which hormone primarily regulates the basal metabolic rate?

Answer: Thyroxine

Question: In the context of muscle contraction, calcium ions bind to which protein to initiate the contraction process?

Answer: Troponin

Question: Which of the following processes generates the most ATP per molecule of glucose oxidized?

Answer: Electron transport chain

Question: What is the effect of high levels of ADP on cellular respiration?

Answer: Stimulates glycolysis

Question: Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-limiting step of glycolysis?

Answer: Phosphofructokinase-1

Question: What is the primary function of the urea cycle?

Answer: To convert ammonia into less toxic substances

Question: In which part of the cell does the Krebs cycle take place?

Answer: Mitochondrial matrix

Question: What is the main role of oxygen in cellular respiration?

Answer: It acts as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain

Question: Which organ is primarily responsible for gluconeogenesis?

Answer: Liver

Question: What is the effect of aldosterone on blood pressure?

Answer: It increases blood pressure by increasing sodium reabsorption.

Question: Which of the following molecules serves as the long-term storage form of energy in muscle cells?

Answer: Glycogen

Question: What is the role of carbonic anhydrase in erythrocytes?

Answer: It catalyzes the conversion of CO2 to bicarbonate

Question: Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-limiting step of glycolysis?

Answer: Phosphofructokinase-1

Question: In the context of physiological pH, which amino acid is considered neutral but has a polar side chain?

Answer: Serine

Question: What is the primary function of the urea cycle?

Answer: To convert ammonia into urea

Question: Which hormone is primarily involved in the regulation of plasma calcium levels?

Answer: Parathyroid hormone

Question: What is the main product of the reaction catalyzed by succinate dehydrogenase in the citric acid cycle?

Answer: Fumarate

Question: Which of the following is NOT a function of the liver?

Answer: Insulin production

Question: The Na+/K+ ATPase pump is classified under which type of transport?

Answer: Active transport

Question: Which enzyme is responsible for the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA?

Answer: Pyruvate dehydrogenase

Question: Which hormone increases blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis?

Answer: Glucagon

Question: What is the role of myoglobin?

Answer: Stores oxygen in muscle cells

Question: Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of cholesterol?

Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

Question: What is the primary role of cyclic AMP (cAMP) in hormone action?

Answer: Acts as a second messenger

Question: Which of the following is NOT a product of glycolysis?

Answer: FADH2

Question: In which part of the cell does the Krebs cycle occur?

Answer: Mitochondrial matrix

Question: Which hormone primarily regulates blood calcium levels?

Answer: Parathyroid hormone

Question: What is the function of myoglobin?

Answer: Oxygen storage in muscle cells

Question: In the context of enzymatic action, what is the 'induced fit' model?

Answer: Both the enzyme and the substrate alter their shapes to fit each other

Question: Which of the following molecules is a disaccharide?

Answer: Sucrose

Question: Which enzymatic activity is involved in unwinding the DNA helix during DNA replication?

Answer: Helicase

Question: Which of the following is the primary role of the enzyme carbonic anhydrase in red blood cells?

Answer: Catalyzing the formation of bicarbonate from carbon dioxide and water

Question: Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the citric acid cycle?

Answer: Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Question: During muscle contraction, which ion binds to troponin to initiate the process?

Answer: Ca2+

Question: Which of the following is a product of the pentose phosphate pathway?

Answer: NADPH

Question: In which part of the cell does glycolysis occur?

Answer: Cytoplasm

Question: Which hormone is primarily involved in the regulation of metabolic rate and protein synthesis?

Answer: Thyroxine

Question: The process by which fatty acids are broken down in the mitochondria to generate acetyl-CoA is known as:

Answer: β-oxidation

Question: Which of the following molecules is considered the 'universal energy currency' of the cell?

Answer: ATP

Question: What is the effect of insulin on potassium levels in the blood?

Answer: Decreases blood potassium by increasing cellular uptake

Question: Renin, an enzyme involved in blood pressure regulation, is secreted by which of the following?

Answer: Kidneys

Question: Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the de novo synthesis of purine nucleotides?

Answer: Glutamine-PRPP amidotransferase

Question: During muscle contraction, which ion is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum to initiate the contraction?

Answer: Ca2+

Question: Which of the following pathways is the primary source of energy for the brain under normal conditions?

Answer: Glycolysis

Question: Which enzyme is responsible for converting fructose-6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate in glycolysis?

Answer: Phosphofructokinase-1

Question: The enzyme deficiency in Type 1 Glycogen Storage Disease (Von Gierke disease) is:

Answer: Glucose-6-phosphatase

Question: Which hormone increases the permeability of the distal tubule and collecting ducts to water in the kidney?

Answer: Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

Question: What is the primary function of the enzyme telomerase?

Answer: To add DNA sequences to the ends of chromosomes

Question: Which of the following molecules acts as a second messenger in many signal transduction pathways?

Answer: Cyclic AMP (cAMP)

Question: What is the most immediate source of energy for ATP synthesis in muscle cells during the first few seconds of intense exercise?

Answer: Creatine phosphate

Question: Which part of the nephron is primarily responsible for the reabsorption of water, Na+, and Cl-?

Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule

Question: Which enzyme is primarily responsible for the synthesis of prostaglandins and thromboxanes?

Answer: Cyclooxygenase

Question: What is the role of calcium ions in muscle contraction?

Answer: Bind to troponin, causing a conformational change that exposes binding sites on actin

Question: Which of the following hormones primarily acts to stimulate glycogenolysis in the liver?

Answer: Glucagon

Question: During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

Answer: S phase

Question: What is the main energy currency of the cell?

Answer: Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Question: Which type of cholesterol is considered 'good' cholesterol?

Answer: High-density lipoprotein (HDL)

Question: What role does carbonic anhydrase play in the body?

Answer: It catalyzes the formation of bicarbonate from carbon dioxide and water

Question: Which of the following is not a function of the liver?

Answer: Insulin production

Question: Where in the cell does oxidative phosphorylation take place?

Answer: Mitochondrial inner membrane

Question: Which enzyme is responsible for converting glucose to glucose-6-phosphate?

Answer: Hexokinase

Question: In the Cori cycle, lactate produced in muscle is converted back to glucose in the:

Answer: Liver

Question: Which of the following hormones primarily signals the fed state?

Answer: Insulin

Question: The sodium-potassium pump (Na+/K+ ATPase) functions by:

Answer: Pumping Na+ out of and K+ into the cell with ATP consumption

Question: Which of the following is NOT a function of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum?

Answer: Protein synthesis

Question: The primary structure of a protein is determined by:

Answer: The sequence of amino acids

Question: Which enzyme catalyzes the rate-limiting step of the citric acid cycle?

Answer: Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Question: Which molecule serves as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?

Answer: Oxygen

Question: Which of the following processes does NOT require oxygen?

Answer: Glycolysis

Question: Which enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of cAMP from ATP?

Answer: Adenylyl cyclase

Question: In gluconeogenesis, which enzyme converts fructose-1,6-bisphosphate to fructose-6-phosphate?

Answer: Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase

Question: What is the role of acetyl-CoA in the citric acid cycle?

Answer: It combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate

Question: Which of the following hormones primarily acts to raise blood glucose concentrations?

Answer: Glucagon

Question: Which process describes the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low solute concentration to an area of high solute concentration?

Answer: Osmosis

Question: What is the primary function of the sodium-potassium pump?

Answer: To transport Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell

Question: Which molecule acts as a second messenger in the mechanism of action of many hormones?

Answer: cAMP

Question: Which of the following is NOT a product of the urea cycle?

Answer: Arginine

Question: In the context of enzyme catalysis, what is the transition state?

Answer: The state corresponding to the highest energy along the reaction pathway

Question: Which hormone is primarily involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?

Answer: Parathyroid hormone

Question: What is the main function of aldosterone?

Answer: Increase sodium reabsorption in the kidneys

Question: Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the synthesis of cholesterol?

Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

Question: In the fed state, which of the following pathways is most active in the liver?

Answer: Glycogenesis

Question: The electron transport chain is located in which part of the mitochondrion?

Answer: Inner membrane

Question: Which of the following processes directly produces the most ATP per molecule of glucose?

Answer: Oxidative phosphorylation

Question: Where does beta-oxidation of fatty acids occur?

Answer: Mitochondrial matrix

Question: Insulin has which of the following effects on carbohydrate metabolism?

Answer: Increases glucose uptake by cells

Question: Which of the following does NOT describe the action of insulin?

Answer: Enhances fat breakdown in adipose tissue

Question: What is the primary role of the enzyme aldolase in glycolysis?

Answer: It splits fructose 1,6-bisphosphate into two three-carbon molecules

Question: Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of plasma calcium levels?

Answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH)

Question: Which organelle is most involved in the detoxification of drugs in liver cells?

Answer: Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)

Question: What is the immediate energy source for muscle contraction?

Answer: Adenosine triphosphate (ATP)

Question: Which mechanism best describes the action of steroid hormones?

Answer: Directly enter the cell and bind to intracellular receptors affecting gene expression

Question: What is the result of lactate dehydrogenase converting pyruvate to lactate?

Answer: Regeneration of NAD+ for glycolysis to continue under anaerobic conditions

Question: Which of the following is NOT a feature of apoptosis?

Answer: Inflammation

Question: Which type of RNA is responsible for bringing amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis?

Answer: Transfer RNA (tRNA)

Question: Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the rate-limiting step in the citric acid cycle?

Answer: Isocitrate dehydrogenase

Question: What is the primary function of the sodium-potassium ATPase pump?

Answer: Transport Na+ out of the cell and K+ into the cell

Question: Which enzyme deficiency is associated with McArdle’s disease?

Answer: Myophosphorylase

Question: What is the primary source of energy for the brain under normal conditions?

Answer: Glucose

Question: What is the end product of glycolysis under anaerobic conditions in skeletal muscle?

Answer: Lactate

Question: Which of the following components of the electron transport chain directly pumps protons to generate a proton gradient?

Answer: NADH dehydrogenase

Question: Which ion is primarily responsible for the resting membrane potential of most cells?

Answer: Potassium (K+)

Question: In the context of acid-base balance, what is the primary role of the bicarbonate (HCO3-) buffer system?

Answer: To stabilize blood pH by neutralizing acids

Question: The action of aldosterone primarily affects which organ system to regulate blood pressure?

Answer: Kidneys

Question: Which enzyme is responsible for converting glucose-6-phosphate to fructose-6-phosphate in the glycolytic pathway?

Answer: Phosphoglucose isomerase

Question: In the Cori cycle, lactate produced in muscles is converted back to glucose in which organ?

Answer: Liver

Question: What is the primary role of the enzyme acetyl-CoA carboxylase in fatty acid metabolism?

Answer: Conversion of acetyl-CoA to malonyl-CoA

Question: Which of the following components of the electron transport chain is involved in the direct synthesis of ATP?

Answer: ATP synthase

Question: What is the primary function of urea in the human body?

Answer: To eliminate waste nitrogen

Question: Which of the following molecules acts as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain?

Answer: Oxygen

Question: How does insulin primarily lower blood glucose levels?

Answer: By increasing glucose uptake by cells

Question: What is the rate-limiting enzyme in the glycolysis pathway?

Answer: Phosphofructokinase-1

Question: Which hormone is primarily involved in the regulation of plasma calcium levels?

Answer: Parathyroid hormone

Question: Which of the following enzymes catalyzes the first step in glycolysis?

Answer: Hexokinase

Question: ATP synthesis in mitochondria is directly driven by:

Answer: The proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane

Question: Which of the following hormones primarily acts to increase blood glucose concentration?

Answer: Glucagon

Question: Which vitamin is required as a coenzyme in the carboxylation reactions?

Answer: Vitamin K

Question: In the electron transport chain, which complex does NOT pump protons?

Answer: Complex II

Question: What is the principal catabolic byproduct of protein metabolism that is excreted in the urine?

Answer: Urea

Question: Which of the following statements about enzyme kinetics is TRUE?

Answer: The presence of a competitive inhibitor will increase the apparent Km.

Question: The Na+/K+ ATPase pump is categorized under which type of transport?

Answer: Active transport

Question: What is the primary role of the hormone aldosterone?

Answer: It increases blood volume and pressure by promoting sodium reabsorption.

Question: Which of the following components is not involved in the replication of DNA?

Answer: Ribosome

Question: What is the primary function of the enzyme phosphofructokinase-1 in glycolysis?

Answer: It catalyzes the conversion of fructose 6-phosphate to fructose 1,6-bisphosphate

Question: Which of the following hormones primarily stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver?

Answer: Glucagon

Question: In the muscle, the binding of which ion to troponin triggers the sliding filament mechanism of contraction?

Answer: Calcium

Question: How does the sodium-potassium pump (Na+/K+ ATPase) maintain cellular homeostasis?

Answer: It moves sodium ions out of and potassium ions into the cell against their concentration gradients using ATP.

Question: What is the rate-limiting enzyme in the cholesterol biosynthesis pathway?

Answer: HMG-CoA reductase

Question: Which of the following processes describes the synthesis of mRNA from DNA?

Answer: Transcription

Question: What is the role of mitochondria in apoptosis?

Answer: Release of cytochrome c into the cytoplasm to activate caspases

Question: Which type of cell junctions are primarily responsible for preventing the passage of substances between cells?

Answer: Tight junctions

Question: Which of the following enzymes is directly responsible for the synthesis of ATP from ADP and inorganic phosphate?

Answer: ATP synthase

Question: What is the primary function of the urea cycle?

Answer: To synthesize urea from carbon dioxide and ammonia

Question: Which hormone is primarily responsible for the regulation of blood glucose levels?

Answer: Insulin

Question: Which of the following molecules is a product of the citric acid cycle?

Answer: NADH

Question: Oxygen binding to hemoglobin is best described by which of the following?

Answer: Sigmoidal kinetics

Question: The sodium-potassium pump functions to:

Answer: Transport Na+ out of and K+ into the cell against their concentration gradients

Question: Which of the following is NOT a function of calcium ions in muscle contraction?

Answer: Directly causing the power stroke

Question: Which of the following tissues has a high rate of gluconeogenesis?

Answer: Liver

Question: In the context of metabolic acidosis, which organ plays a key role in compensating for pH imbalances?

Answer: Lungs

Question: What is the normal adult dental formula?

Answer: 2-1-2-3

Question: At what age does the first primary tooth usually erupt?

Answer: 6 months

Question: Mamelons are found on the incisal edges of which teeth?

Answer: Permanent incisors

Question: Which cusp is the largest and most important cusp on the maxillary first molar?

Answer: The mesiobuccal cusp

Question: In the Universal Numbering System, which tooth is designated as tooth number 3?

Answer: Maxillary right first molar

Question: What feature distinguishes mandibular first premolars from mandibular second premolars?

Answer: The presence of a mesial pit

Question: Which of the following tooth surfaces is the chewing or biting surface?

Answer: Occlusal

Question: The point angle that is formed by the junction of the occlusal, buccal, and mesial surfaces is called what?

Answer: Mesiobuccal

Question: Interproximal spacing found in the primary dentition is known as which of the following?

Answer: Primate spaces

Question: Which of the following permanent teeth usually has two roots?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: The cusp of Carabelli is found on which tooth?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: Which of the following landmarks is a depression on the occlusal surface of molars?

Answer: Central fossa

Question: In which of the following situations would a BULL (Buccal Upper, Lingual Lower) rule for the version movements be applied?

Answer: During lateral movements

Question: The primary center of calcification for the maxillary first molar is at what prenatal age?

Answer: 4 months in utero

Question: Which tooth is the most likely to have three canals?

Answer: Mandibular second premolar

Question: What is the normal Overjet in millimeters?

Answer: 2-4mm

Question: Which of the following teeth usually has two roots?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes with which structure?

Answer: The buccal groove of the mandibular first molar

Question: At what age does the mandibular central incisor typically erupt?

Answer: 6-7 months

Question: What is the characteristic feature of the mandibular first premolar?

Answer: It has a prominent mesial ridge

Question: Which of the following is an anterior tooth?

Answer: Maxillary lateral incisor

Question: What is the function of the canine teeth?

Answer: Tearing

Question: Which tooth has a cingulum?

Answer: All of the above

Question: What is the primary morphology feature of the occlusal surface of mandibular molars?

Answer: Two transverse ridges

Question: The incisal edge of which tooth/teeth is/are straight mesiodistally when viewed from the incisal?

Answer: Maxillary central incisors only

Question: Which of the following is the correct sequence of eruption for permanent teeth?

Answer: First molars, canines, first premolars, second premolars, second molars

Question: What is the primary antagonist of the maxillary first molar?

Answer: Mandibular first molar

Question: In permanent dentition, which tooth has the longest root?

Answer: Maxillary canine

Question: Which cusp is the tallest on the maxillary first premolar?

Answer: Mesiofacial

Question: What is the usual number of canals in a mandibular second premolar?

Answer: Two

Question: Which of the following teeth typically has two roots?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: Centric relation refers to which of the following?

Answer: The most retruded physiologic relation of the mandible to the maxillae

Question: What feature distinguishes a mandibular molar from a maxillary molar?

Answer: The number of roots

Question: Which of the following describes the Curve of Spee?

Answer: It is the anteroposterior curvature, following the occlusal surfaces of the teeth

Question: Which of the following teeth typically has two roots?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: The cusp of Carabelli is most commonly found on which tooth?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: Which tooth has a lingual pit?

Answer: Maxillary lateral incisor

Question: What is the occlusal relationship termed when the lower molar mesiobuccal cusp is positioned in the buccal groove of the upper molar?

Answer: Class I occlusion

Question: Which of the following premolars often has a bifurcated root system?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: The distal contact area of a maxillary lateral incisor is typically located at which of the following positions?

Answer: At the junction of the incisal and middle third

Question: In which of the following teeth is a transverse ridge formed by the union of a buccal and a lingual cusp?

Answer: Mandibular first premolar

Question: What is the term for the occlusal scheme where each tooth in the arch contacts two opposing teeth with the exception of the molars?

Answer: Mutually protected occlusion

Question: The mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes with which of the following structures?

Answer: Groove between mandibular first and second molars

Question: Which of the following characteristics is typical of mandibular second molars?

Answer: Four cusps

Question: Which of the following permanent teeth typically has two roots?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: The primary molar that most resembles a permanent molar in form is the:

Answer: Mandibular second primary molar

Question: Which cusp is the largest and most well-developed on the mandibular first molar?

Answer: Mesiofacial

Question: In which quadrant and on which tooth is the cusp of Carabelli found?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: Which of the following best describes the occlusal surface of maxillary first premolars?

Answer: Has a mesial and a distal pit

Question: What is the characteristic number of pulp canals in a mandibular second premolar?

Answer: It varies significantly

Question: The occlusal pattern of which tooth is described as having a cross shape with a central pit?

Answer: Permanent mandibular first molar

Question: Which of the following teeth is most likely to have a lingual groove?

Answer: Maxillary canine

Question: The term 'Leeway space' refers to:

Answer: The difference in combined width between primary canines and molars versus permanent canines and premolars

Question: What is the primary distinguishing feature of mandibular first premolars when seen from the occlusal view?

Answer: Mesial marginal ridge is more cervical than the distal

Question: Which of the following teeth has a root that is most commonly bifurcated?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: Which tooth is considered to be succedaneous?

Answer: Mandibular second premolar

Question: The cusp of Carabelli is most commonly found on which tooth?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: In terms of occlusion, what is the term used to describe the maximum contact between the occluding surfaces of the maxillary and mandibular teeth?

Answer: Centric occlusion

Question: What is the unique feature of the mandibular central incisor when viewed incisally?

Answer: Symmetrical crown

Question: Which tooth has a mesial drift?

Answer: Mandibular molars

Question: How many roots do most maxillary molars have?

Answer: Three

Question: Which of the following characteristics is most likely found on a maxillary central incisor?

Answer: A pronounced lingual fossa

Question: Which of the following permanent teeth typically has a single root and a single canal?

Answer: Mandibular first premolar

Question: The mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes with which of the following structures?

Answer: The mesiobuccal groove of the mandibular first molar

Question: Which tooth is considered the cornerstone of the dental arch due to its morphology and position?

Answer: Mandibular first molar

Question: The cingulum of which tooth is displaced toward the distal?

Answer: Maxillary lateral incisor

Question: Which of the following teeth has a root that is commonly bifurcated?

Answer: Maxillary second premolar

Question: In which direction does the mandibular lateral movement occur during lateral excursive movement?

Answer: Toward the non-working (balancing) side

Question: A distinguishing feature of a mandibular second molar from a mandibular first molar is:

Answer: Four cusps

Question: Anterior guidance is characterized by which of the following?

Answer: Disclusion of posterior teeth in a protrusive movement

Question: Which of the following permanent teeth usually has two roots?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: The cusp of Carabelli is typically found on which tooth?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: Which of the following teeth usually has a single root?

Answer: Mandibular canine

Question: Mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes with which groove of the mandibular first molar?

Answer: Mesial groove

Question: Which of the following landmarks is a guide for the occlusal plane of posterior teeth during denture fabrication?

Answer: Retromolar pad

Question: In centric occlusion, the lingual cusp of the maxillary first premolar occludes with which of the following?

Answer: Distal fossa of the mandibular first premolar

Question: What is the primary antagonist tooth to the maxillary central incisor during lateral movements?

Answer: Mandibular canine

Question: What feature is most unique to primary dentition compared to permanent dentition?

Answer: Prominent buccal and lingual pulp horns

Question: The maxillary lateral incisors are articulated such that their distal contacts are more cervical than their mesial contacts. This characteristic:

Answer: Facilitates self-cleaning of the teeth

Question: Which of the following permanent teeth usually has two roots and two canals?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: The primary center of ossification for the mandible is located in which area?

Answer: Mandibular symphysis

Question: Which cusps of the mandibular first molar are the largest and longest?

Answer: Mesio-buccal and distobuccal

Question: In permanent dentition, which tooth is the first to erupt?

Answer: Mandibular central incisor

Question: The occlusal surface of the maxillary first premolar typically features which of the following?

Answer: Two cusps

Question: Which of the following teeth generally has a single root?

Answer: Mandibular second premolar

Question: The Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is instrumental in the development of what aspect of the tooth?

Answer: Cementum

Question: Which of the following teeth typically exhibits a cusp of Carabelli?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: What is the usual sequence of eruption for the permanent mandibular teeth on one side?

Answer: Central incisor, lateral incisor, first molar, canine, first premolar, second premolar, second molar

Question: Which of the following teeth typically has two roots?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: The cusp of Carabelli is found on which tooth?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: Which of the following is the primary antagonist tooth of the maxillary right first molar?

Answer: Mandibular left first molar

Question: The mesiolingual cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes with the:

Answer: Mesial fossa of the mandibular first molar.

Question: In Angle's classification, class II division 2 malocclusion is characterized by:

Answer: Distocclusion of the molar teeth with retroclined upper incisors.

Question: Which of the following permanent teeth normally erupts first?

Answer: Mandibular first molar

Question: What is the function of the oblique ridge found in upper molars?

Answer: Connects the mesiolingual to the distobuccal cusps

Question: The predominant movement during mastication in the mandible is:

Answer: Rotational on a longitudinal axis

Question: Which of the following teeth has a non-succedaneous predecessor?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: Which of the following is typically the first primary tooth to erupt?

Answer: Mandibular central incisor

Question: Which cusp is the largest on the mandibular first molar?

Answer: Mesiofacial

Question: In permanent dentition, which tooth has a non-functional lingual cusp?

Answer: Mandibular first premolar

Question: The point angle that is formed by the junction of the mesial, occlusal, and buccal surfaces is known as:

Answer: Mesio-occluso-buccal angle

Question: Which of the following teeth typically has two roots?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: Which tooth usually has a mesial drift?

Answer: Mandibular central incisor

Question: The primary function of the incisors is:

Answer: Cutting

Question: Which of the following is a key feature of occlusal harmony?

Answer: All teeth contact simultaneously in centric occlusion

Question: The curve of Spee is:

Answer: An anteroposterior curvature viewed from the buccal aspect

Question: Which tooth has a nonfunctional lingual cusp?

Answer: Mandibular first premolar

Question: The primary maxillary second molar resembles which permanent tooth?

Answer: Permanent maxillary first molar

Question: Which of the following is the correct sequence of eruption for permanent teeth?

Answer: Incisors, premolars, canines, molars

Question: In which of the following teeth is a cingulum most prominent?

Answer: Maxillary canine

Question: Which tooth is most likely to have a bifurcated root?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: Which of the following teeth typically has two roots?

Answer: Mandibular first molar

Question: The distoincisal angle of which tooth is more rounded than the mesioincisal angle?

Answer: Maxillary central incisor

Question: Which molar is most likely to have a fifth cusp?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: What is the primary occlusal characteristic of primary dentition?

Answer: Flush terminal plane

Question: Which permanent teeth replace the primary second molars?

Answer: First molars

Question: In the universal numbering system, which tooth is designated as tooth number 3?

Answer: Maxillary right first molar

Question: What cusp of the maxillary first molar occludes with the developmental groove of the mandibular first molar?

Answer: Mesiolingual

Question: Which of the following teeth typically have two roots?

Answer: Mandibular first premolars

Question: The occlusal surface of permanent molars exhibits how many developmental grooves?

Answer: Four or more primary grooves

Question: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the mandibular central incisor?

Answer: It has a mesial and distal pit

Question: The primary function of the canines is:

Answer: Grasping

Question: Which tooth has a prominent cusp of Carabelli?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: Interproximal wear facets are most commonly found between:

Answer: Maxillary lateral incisors and canines

Question: The mesial step, straight plane, and distal step refer to which aspect of dental development?

Answer: Molar relationship in primary dentition

Question: Which of the following teeth has a mesial surface that is concave?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: The primary center of calcification for the mandibular first molar appears at what age?

Answer: 6 months

Question: Which cusp of the mandibular first molar is the largest and longest?

Answer: Mesiofacial

Question: In the Universal Numbering System, which tooth is designated as number 3?

Answer: Maxillary right first molar

Question: Which of the following characterizes the occlusal morphology of a mandibular second premolar with 3 cusps?

Answer: One buccal and two lingual cusps

Question: The contact area located most cervical (towards the root) on the maxillary lateral incisor is on the:

Answer: Distal surface

Question: Which tooth typically has a root with two canals distally?

Answer: Mandibular second molar

Question: What is the occlusal pattern of the permanent maxillary first molar?

Answer: Rhomboidal

Question: Which tooth is the largest anterior tooth?

Answer: Maxillary central incisor

Question: At what age does the first permanent molar usually erupt?

Answer: 6 years

Question: The occlusal surface of mandibular first molars usually has how many cusps?

Answer: 5

Question: Which tooth has a cusp of Carabelli?

Answer: Max welfareillary first molar

Question: In which direction does the mandibular lateral incisor's incisal edge slope?

Answer: Mesially

Question: The distoincisal angle of which tooth is more rounded?

Answer: Mandibular lateral incisor

Question: Which of the following teeth typically has two roots?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: In permanent dentition, which teeth are succedaneous?

Answer: Canines and incisors

Question: What is the characteristic feature of the occlusal anatomy of maxillary first premolars?

Answer: Mesial and distal transverse ridges

Question: Which of the following teeth typically has two roots?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: The occlusal surface of which tooth has a prominent mesial marginal ridge?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: What cusp of the mandibular first molar is the largest and longest?

Answer: Mesiofacial

Question: In permanent dentition, which tooth is the first to erupt?

Answer: Mandibular central incisor

Question: The transverse ridge in a maxillary molar is formed by the union of which two ridges?

Answer: Anterior triangular ridge and posterior triangular ridge

Question: Which of the following teeth usually has a bifurcated root system?

Answer: Maxillary first premolar

Question: The angle formed by the junction of the crown and the root is known as which of the following?

Answer: Cemento-enamel junction (CEJ)

Question: The cusp of Carabelli is most commonly found on which tooth?

Answer: Maxillary first molar

Question: What feature distinguishes the anterior teeth from the posterior?

Answer: All of the above